ccna interview questions and answers

Part - 48 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

270 Which of the following are Distant Vector protocols?

A.) IGRP

B.) RIP

C.) OSFP

D.) EIGRP

Ans A B

RIP and IGRP are Distance Vectoring protocols that send their entire routing tables to their neighbors. In some Cisco literature, EIGRP is listed as an 'advanced distance vector' routing protocol. However, the official curriculum courseware considers EIGRP a 'hybrid' protocol.

271 UDP works at which layer of the DOD model?

A.) Internet

B.) Host-to-Host

C.) Transport

D.) Data Link

Ans B

The TCP/IP Transport Layer (OSI) and Host to Host (DOD) protocols use TCP and UDP.

272 Of the following switching types, which one has the lowest latency?

A.) Cut-through

B.) Fragment Free

C.) None

D.) Store-and-forward

Ans A

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

273 What is an administrative distance of 0 mean?

A.) 0 means unbelievable

B.) 0 is for EIGRP

C.) 0 is the default distance for directly connected networks

D.) 0 means unreachable

Ans C

Directly connected network have the lowest administrative distance of 0. They are considered the most reliable.

274 Which of the following describe full-duplex transmission?

A.) Uses a single wire

B.) Data transmission in only both directions, but only one way at a time

C.) Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station

D.) Data transmission in only one direction

Ans C

Full Duplex - Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station. It requires a workstation be attached to a switch, the NIC must support it, and collision detection and loopback must be disabled.

275 Which of the following is a connectionless protocol at the Transport layer?

A.) UDP

B.) ARP

C.) ICMP

D.) RARP

E.) IP

F.) FTP

Ans A

User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and reliability. UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order after transmission. This protocol uses Port 17.

276 What is the routing metric used by IGRP?

A.) MTU, delay, bandwidth, reliability, and loading

B.) Count to infinity

C.) TTL

D.) Hop count

Ans A

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.

277 What does 'P' mean when running a Trace?

A.) Good route

B.) Protocol unreachable

C.) Source Quench

D.) Destination unreachable

Ans B

When a P is returned when a Trace is run, it means the Protocol is unreachable.

278 What is the Network Layer of the OSI responsible for?

A.) Bridging

B.) Routing packets through an internetwork

C.) Regenerating the digital signal

D.) Gateway services

Ans B

The Network Layer routes data from one node to another, sends data from the source network to the destination network. The router will use packet switching to move a packet from one interface or port, to another through the network cloud.

279 Which layer is responsible for routing through an internetwork?

A.) Physical

B.) Session

C.) Network

D.) Transport

E.) Application

F.) Data Link

Ans C

The Network layer is responsible for routing. This is the primary job of routers, which operate at the Network layer.

280 What three occurrences will reset the holddown timer after a triggered update?

A.) Infinity is finally defined as some max number

B.) HD Timer expires

C.) Another update is received indicating a better metric

D.) The router receives a processing task proportional to the number of links in the internetwork

E.) The router detects fault LSP's propagating through the internetwork

F.) Another update is received indicating net status changed

Ans B D F

The HD Timer expires, another update is received indicating net status change, or if the router receives a processing task proportional to the number of links in the internetwork, this reset the holddown timer. These are all triggered updates.

Part -49 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

281 Which layer is responsible for putting 1s and 0s into a logical group?

A.) Session

B.) Application

C.) Transport

D.) Data Link

E.) Physical

F.) Network

Ans D

Frames are broken down into 1s and 0s and placed onto the physical medium by the Data Link layer.

282 How many LMI types are available on Cisco routers?

A.) Four

B.) Two

C.) Five

D.) Three

Ans D

There are three types of LMI standards: ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four

283 Which layer is responsible for framing?

A.) Application

B.) Data Link

C.) Physical

D.) Network

E.) Transport

Ans B

The Data link layer performs the following: Responsible for physically passing data from one node to another. Translates messages from the upper layers into data frames and adds customized headers containing the Hardware destination and source address.

284 What ISDN protocol specifies concepts, terminology, and services?

A.) Q

B.) S

C.) I

D.) E

Ans C

These protocols deal with ISDN issues: E - Specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network. I - Specifies concepts, terminology, and services. Q - Specifies switching and signalling.

285 What is the purpose of Split Horizon?

A.) It prevents the regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down

B.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

C.) Informs all neighbor routers that two routes exist

D.) Tells the router the destination is unreachable

Ans B

Split Horizon - If you learn a protocol’s route on an interface, do not send information about that route back out that interface.

286 WAN stands for which of the following?

A.) Wide Arena Network

B.) World Area Network

C.) Wide Area News

D.) Wide Area Network

Ans D

WAN stands for Wide Area Network

287 Which of the following provide connection-oriented transport to upper layer protocols?

A.) SPX

B.) RIP

C.) NLSP

D.) NCP

Ans A

SPX is similar to TCP in that is provides reliable delivery of packets and provides connection-oriented transport to the upper layer protocols.

288 Which two does 100BaseT use?

A.) CSMA/CD

B.) IEEE 802.5

C.) 802.3u

D.) Switching with 53-byte cells

Ans A C

100BaseT - 100BaseT uses two-pair Category 5 UTP cable with an RJ45 connector and the same pin out as in 10BaseT. 100BaseT supports full duplex operation. 100BaseT is limited to 100 meters distance.

289 Which layer is responsible for flow control, acknowledgement, and windowing?

A.) Transport

B.) Network

C.) Application

D.) Session

E.) Physical

F.) Data Link

Ans A

The Transport layer performs the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

290 Which of the following is used to manage and monitor the network?

A.) SNMP

B.) HTTP

C.) IP

D.) FTP

Ans A

The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to manage and monitor traps.

Part - 50 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

291 What is true about Link-State protocols?

A.) They maintain a more complex table than distant vector protocols

B.) They maintain a less complex table than distant vector protocols

C.) They use routing ports

D.) The maintain backup copies of the IOS

Ans A Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect.

292 The maximum distance on a 10BaseT network from the hub to a workstation is which of the following?

A.) 500 meters

B.) 1000 meters

C.) 100 meters

D.) 1500 meters

Ans C

The standard for 10BaseT networks is 100 meters, or approximately 330 feet.

293 Which of the following use PVCs at layer 2?

A.) X.25

B.) HDLC

C.) Frame relay

D.) ISDN

Ans C

Of the above choices, only Frame relay uses Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) at layer 2. PVC is the key word in this question.

294 What is the routing algorithm used by RIP and IGRP?

A.) OSPF

B.) Link-state

C.) Dynamic

D.) Distance Vector

Ans D

Distance vector-based routing algorithms (also known as Bellman-Ford algorithms) pass periodic copies of a routing table from router to router. Regular updates between routers communicate topology changes. Each router receives a routing table from it's direct neighbor and increments all learned routes by one. By this method, each router learns the internetwork topology via second hand information.

295 Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?

A.) Network

B.) Session

C.) Application

D.) Transport

E.) Presentation

Ans E

The Presentation layer performs the following: Manages data representation conversions, or data transfer syntax. For example, the Presentation layer would be responsible for converting from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption are presentation layer. Presentation layer standards include MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, ASCII, and EBCDIC

296 What are hold-downs used for?

A.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has come back up

B.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

C.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down

D.) To hold the routing table from being sent to another router

Ans C

Hold-Down Timers - Routers ignore network update information for some period.

297 Which of the following protocols are used for logical network addressing?

A.) IP

B.) TCP

C.) ARP

D.) ICMP

E.) RARP

F.) BootP

Ans A

Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have any functions relating to routing. IP receives segments from the transport layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address. IP addressing is logical, not physical.

298 Which can be logged by IPX extended access lists?

A.) source address

B.) protocol

C.) source socket

D.) access list number

E.) destination socket

F.) destination address

Ans A B C D E F

All of the above can be logged by IPX extended access lists.

299 Put the following steps of encapsulation into the correct order:

1) The data is broken into segments to be organized
2) Frames are converted to 1s and 0s to be put on the wire
3) Packets are converted into frames
4) Information that users enter is converted into data
5) The segments are changed to packets to be routed

A.) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

B.) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

C.) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5

D.) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Ans D

Follow the steps through the Layers of the OSI model to get the answer. Watch the key words in each line to help you determine the steps.

300 Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts?

A.) 1024 and above

B.) 6 and 17 respectively

C.) 1-25

D.) 6-17

Ans A

TCP and UDP use random port number above 1023 for establishing communications.

Part - 51 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

301 Repeaters work at which layer of the OSI model?

A.) Network

B.) Session

C.) Transport

D.) Physical

Ans D

Repeaters work at the Physical layer of the OSI model by regenerating the signal to extend the distance it can travel.

302 What protocols can you use while testing Trace?

A.) DECnet

B.) CLNS

C.) IP

D.) Old Vines

E.) Vines

F.) Chaos

Ans B C D E

Type Trace ? At the router command prompt to see a list of available supported protocols for tracing routes to IP addresses or Name addresses.

303 What utility can you use to see the path a packet takes through an internetwork?

A.) Route

B.) SNMP

C.) Trace

D.) Ping

Ans C

Trace - Uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along the path. This is very powerful in its ability to locate failures in the path from the source to the destination.

304 What is true about frame-relay DLCI?

A.) DLCI represents a single physical circuit

B.) DLCI is optional in all frame-relay networks

C.) DLCI identifies a logical connection between DTE devices

D.) DLCI is used to tag the beginning of a frame with VLAN information Ans C Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI). A frame-relay service provider typically assigns DLCI values that are used by frame-relay to distinguish between different virtual circuits on the network. For the IP devices at each end of a virtual circuit to communicate, their IP addresses are mapped to Dlci. Every DLCI value can have a global or local meaning.

305 Which frame has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol?

A.) 802.3

B.) 802.2

C.) 802.5

D.) Ethernet_II

Ans D

Ethernet_II has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol. This is best seen by capturing packets with a sniffer and examining the packet.

306 Which protocol will let neighbor routers know if your internetwork experienced congestion on a serial port?

A.) BootP

B.) IP

C.) ICMP

D.) ARP

E.) FTP

F.) RARP

Ans C

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams. ICMP is used in the following events:
Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable. Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator. Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

307 What do you use the Aux port for?

A.) Console

B.) Terminal editing

C.) Modem

D.) Backup logging

Ans C

The auxiliary port is used to connect a modem to for dial backups.

308 The CSMA/CD Ethernet IEEE committee is defines as which of the following?

A.) 802.2

B.) 802.3

C.) 802.4

D.) 802.5

Ans B

The IEEE standard for Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection is 802.3. Also know as Ethernet.

309 How many Frame-relay encapsulation types are available with Cisco routers?

A.) Four

B.) Two

C.) Five

D.) Three

Ans B

The two types of Frame relay encapsulation are Cisco and IETF.

310 What is the maximum hop count for Link-State protocols?

A.) 15

B.) there is no hop count limit

C.) 256

D.) 16 Ans B Link-state-based routing algorithms – also known as shortest path first (SPF) algorithms, maintain a complex database of topology information. Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect.

311 What information can you get from CDP info: (choose all that apply)

A.) Hardware platform

B.) One address per protocol

C.) Software platform

D.) Hostname

E.) The same info as show version

F.) Incoming/outgoing port

Ans A B D E F

All of the above except the software platform can be seen with the CDP information.

312 How does the cut-through switching technique work?

A.) By using broadcast address as source addresses

B.) The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets

C.) The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface

D.) By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

Ans B

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

313 What is the protocol number for TCP?

A.) 80

B.) 21

C.) 11

D.) 6

Ans D

Transmission Control Protocol - TCP is a connection oriented transport layer protocol with built in reliability. It takes a large block of data and breaks it down into segments. It numbers and sequences each segment so the destination's TCP protocol can re-assemble it back into the original order. TCP uses acknowledgements via sliding windows. It has a large overhead due to built in error checking. The protocol use protocol # 6.

314 Which of the following are Presentation Layer standards?

A.) JPEG and PICT

B.) MPEG and MIDI

C.) ASCII and EBCDIC

D.) NFS and SQL

Ans A B C

For example, the Presentation layer would be responsible for converting from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data compression, decompression, encryption, and decryption are presentation layer. Presentation layer standards include MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, ASCII, and EBCDIC.


315 What is the administrative distance for RIP?

A.) 100

B.) 90

C.) 120

D.) 110

The correct answer(s): C Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.

316 IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or denying packets?

A.) destination address

B.) port

C.) protocol

D.) source address

Ans D

For Standard access lists, only the source address is used as a basis for permitting or denying packets.

317 If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method is this?

A.) Store-and-drop

B.) Latency

C.) Store-and-forward

D.) Cut-through

Ans D

Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and determines the outgoing interface.

318 What is the purpose and default value of the CDP timer command?

A.) 90 seconds; interval before an entry expires

B.) 60 seconds; interval between updates

C.) 60 seconds; interval before an entry expires

D.) 90 seconds; interval between updates

Ans B

The CDP timer controls when the update of CDP information should be sent to the neighbor router.

319 Choose the following that are benefits to segmenting with router:

A.) Flow Control

B.) Manageability

C.) Multiple Active Paths

D.) Explicit packet lifetime control

Ans A B C D

All of the above are benefits of segmenting with a router.

320 When discussing static routes, what is the gateway parameter used for?

A.) Determining the dynamic route

B.) Defining the subnet

C.) Defining the Administrative Distance

D.) Determining the next hop

Ans D

The gateway parameter determines the path to the next router.

321 Which layer hides details of network dependent information from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer?

A.) Transport

B.) Physical

C.) Data Link

D.) Session

E.) Application

F.) Network

Ans A

The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.

322 What information is provided by the local management interface (LMI)?

A.) LMI encapsulation type

B.) The current DLCI values

C.) The status of virtual circuits

D.) The global or local significance of the DLCI values

Ans B C D

LMI is a standard related to Frame Relay. It provides information related to PVCs.

323 Which layer defines the physical topology?

A.) Application

B.) Transport

C.) Network

D.) Data Link

E.) Physical

F.) Session

Ans E

The Physical layer deals with the actual physical medium and the method of transporting 1s and 0s.


324 What key do you use to view the last command?

A.) Left Arrow

B.) Space Bar

C.) Up Arrow

D.) Right Arrow

Ans C

CTRL+P as well as the Up Arrow keyboard commands will show the last command.

325 Which of the follow do not belong to the customer?

A.) CO

B.) DCE

C.) Router

D.) CPE

E.) Demarc

F.) DTE

Ans A E

Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point of presence for a provider's WAN service. Demarcation (Demarc) - The point at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins. Usually the telecommunications closet at the subscriber's location. CPE, DTE, DCE, and the router are all typically owned by the customer. DTE devices are usually routers, DCE devices are CSUs/DSUs, or WAN interfaces that have a built in CSU/DSU in the router. CPE stands for Customer Premise Equipment.

Part - 52 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

326 What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree Protocol?

A.) 802.9

B.) 803.ud

C.) 803

D.) 802.1d

Ans D

IEEE 8021.d Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was developed to prevent routing loops in a network. If a router, switch, or hub has more then one path to the same destination, a routing problem could occur. To prevent this, the Spanning Tree Protocol is executed between the devices to detect and logically block redundant paths from the network. The main function of the Spanning Tree Protocol is to allow redundant network paths without suffering the effects of loops in the network. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) implemented by STP prevents loops by calculating a stable Spanning Tree network topology. When creating fault tolerant internetworks, a loop-free path must exist between all Ethernet nodes in the network. Spanning Tree frames called Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) are sent and received by all switches in the network at regular intervals.

327 CO is an acronym for which of the following?

A.) Central Office

B.) Capital Office

C.) Central Operator

D.) Company Office

Ans A

Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point of presence for a provider's WAN service.

328 What is convergence time?

A.) The update time

B.) The time it takes to reload a router

C.) The time it takes for a packet to reach its destination

D.) The time is takes for all routers update their tables after a change takes place

Ans D

Convergence is slower for Distant Vector routing and is faster for Link State routing.

329 Which of the following are Session Layer standards?

A.) ASCII and EBCDIC

B.) MPEG and MIDI

C.) NFS and SQL

D.) JPEG and PICT

Ans C

Session layer protocols include NFS, SQL, RPC, Appletalk Session Protocol (ASP), XWindows, and NetBEUI.

330 What is the IP extended access list range?

A.) 1000-1099

B.) 100-199

C.) 1-99

D.) 101-200

Ans B

100-199 is the range for Extended IP access lists.

331 Define Poison Reverse?

A.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down

B.) Packets sent out that are not destined for a network go to the default network

C.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

D.) When a network goes down, the router enters in its table the number 16 to signify destination unreachable

Ans D

By entering a 16 as the hop count, the other routers know that the destination is unreachable.

332 What is the default interval for SAP updates?

A.) 60 seconds

B.) 15 seconds

C.) 30 seconds

D.) 120 seconds

Ans A

By default, the SAP (Service Access Protocol) sends out updates every 60 seconds. This value can be changed to alter the update interval. To decrease WAN traffic, the update interval could be increased to every 5 minutes.

333What does a router do with a packet that it does not have a destination network for?

A.) Sends it to the Serial port

B.) Drops the packet

C.) Sends it back out the same interface it received it in

D.) Forwards the packet to the next hop Ans B When a router does not have a destination for a packet, it drops the packet into the bit bucket.

334 What type of frame does CDP use to gather information about it's neighbors?

A.) TCP/IP

B.) Novell-ether

C.) Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP)

D.) Ethernet_II Ans C Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. CDP is enabled by default.

335 Which protocol is used for booting diskless workstations?

A.) IP

B.) ARP

C.) RARP

D.) TCP

E.) SNMP

Ans C Reverse Address Resolution Protocol - RARP is ARP's counterpart, but it resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses typically on diskless workstations.

336 Which layer is responsible for synchronizing sending and receiving applications?

A.) Presentation

B.) Session

C.) Transport

D.) Application

E.) Network

Ans D

The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication.
Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP

337 Which protocol gets a hardware address from a known IP address?

A.) RARP

B.) TCP

C.) IP

D.) BootP

E.) ARP

F.) ICMP

Ans E

Address Resolution Protocol - ARP is responsible for resolving MAC addresses to IP address. It stores these in its arp cache for later use. It does this to inform a lower layer of the destination's MAC address.

338 Which layer defines bit synchronization?

A.) Application

B.) Network

C.) Transport

D.) Physical

E.) Session

F.) Session

Ans D

The Physical layers deals with synchronizing the 1s and 0s on the wire.

339 Which is true regarding half duplex Ethernet operation?

A.) Half Duplex ethernet technology provides a transmit circuit connection wired directly to the receiver circuit at the other end

B.) Half duplex transmission between stations is achieved by using point to multipoint Ethernet and Fast Ethernet

C.) With Half Duplex transmission logically circuits feed into a single cable creating a situation similar to a one way bridge

D.) Half Duplex transmission between stations is achieved using Point to Point Ethernet & Fast Ethernet Ans C Half-Duplex - Capability for data transmission in only one direction at a time between sending station and a receiving station.

340 When would you use ISDN?

A.) To connect LANs using POTS

B.) To support applications requiring voice, data, and video

C.) When you need a consistent and very high rate of data speed

D.) To connect to IBM mainframes Ans B IDSN supports high speed voice, data and video and is a good choice for many small businesses.

350 Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs?

A.) ARP

B.) TCP

C.) IP

D.) ICMP

Ans D

Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams. ICMP is used in the following events: Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable. Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator. Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.

Part - 53 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

351 What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?

A.) Handles access to shared media

B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium

C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols

D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer

Ans B D

These are the two primary functions of the MAC layer.

352 Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?

A.) Application

B.) Network

C.) Session

D.) Transport

E.) Physical

F.) Data Link

Ans C

The Session layer performs the following: Responsible for establishing and maintaining communications channels. In practice, this layer is often combined with the Transport Layer. Dialog control between devices or nodes. Organizes the communication through simplex, half and full duplex modes. Deals with connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.

353 What is the default CDP broadcast update rate for Cisco routers?

A.) 120 seconds

B.) 60 seconds

C.) 30 seconds

D.) 90 seconds

Ans B

Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. CDP is enabled by default.

354 You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A.) One for each WAN link

B.) One for each router interface

C.) One for each NIC installed in each client

D.) One for each subnet with hosts

E.) One for each host ID

Ans A D

When determining Network Ids, you need to take into account each Subnet and Each WAN link you will have. Add these numbers up and you will find the answer to which Network ID you can use.

355 What is the protocol number for UDP?

A.) 6

B.) 17

C.) 25

D.) 21

Ans B

User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and reliability. UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order after transmission. This protocol uses Port 17.

356 What is the default LMI type?

A.) Cisco

B.) ANSI

C.) IETF

D.) Q933a

Ans A

Local Management Interface (LMI) was developed in 1990. LMI messages provide information about the current DLCI values, the global or local significance of the DLCI value, and the status of virtual circuits. There are three types of LMI standards: ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four

357 You have two Cisco routers setup back-to-back in a lab using DTE/DCE cables. To which router would you add the clockrate command?

A.) The serial port on the DCE router

B.) The Ethernet port on the DTE router

C.) The Ethernet port on the DCE router

D.) The serial port on the DTE router

Ans A

In order to connect routers back-to-back, a clock rate must be set on the router with the DCE cable. This will provide the clocking usually performed by a DSU/CSU. It is recommended that a bandwidth statement be added to the interface because some routing protocols, such as IGRP, use this to make routing decisions.

358 How does a switch use store and forward?

A.) By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

B.) The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface

C.) By using broadcast addresses as source addresses

D.) The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets

Ans B Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

359 Which of the following are valid WAN terms?

A.) DTE

B.) DCE

C.) Demarc

D.) CPE

Ans A B C D

All of the above are valid WAN terms.

360 Which two describe frame tagging?

A.) Examines particular info about each frame

B.) A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the switch fabric

C.) A user- assigned ID defined to each frame

D.) The building of filter tables

Ans B C

Frame identification (frame tagging) uniquely assigns a user-defined ID to each frame. This technique was chosen by the IEEE standards group because of its scalability. In this approach, a unique user-defined identifier is placed in the header of each frame as it's forwarded throughout the switch fabric. The identifier is understood and examined by each switch prior to any broadcasts or transmissions to switch ports of other switches, router, or end-station devices. When the frame exits the switch fabric, the switch removes the identifier before the frame is transmitted to the target end-station. The following points summarize frame tagging: Used by Catalyst 3000 and 5000 series switches Specifically developed for multi-VLAN, inter-switch communication Places a unique identifier in the header of each frame Functions at layer 2 Requires little processing or administrative overhead

361 A ISDN BRI circuit can be described as a which of the following?

A.) 3B channels

B.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel

C.) none of the above

D.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps C channel

Ans B

There are two types of ISDN Channels : BRI (Basic Rate Interface) - is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one 16Kbps D channel for link management. PRI (Primary Rate Interface) - is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.

362 The two sublayers of the IEEE Data Link Layer are which of the following?

A.) Link and Logical Control

B.) Data Link and LLC

C.) Logical Link Control and Media Access Control

D.) Data Link and MAC

Ans C

Logical Link Control Sublayer - Acts as a managing buffer between the upper layers and the lower layers. Uses Source Service Access Points (SSAPs) and Destination Service Access Points (DSAPs) to help the lower layers talk to the Network Layer. Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.

363 The -- terminal no editing -- command will perform what function?

A.) Edit the contents of NVRAM

B.) Allows access to the terminal port

C.) Stops the advanced editing feature

D.) Enable password functions

Ans C The command to disable advanced editing feature is: Router(config)# terminal no editing

364 Which two of the following are valid ways to have multiple encapsulation types on a single interface?

A.) This is not possible

B.) subinterfaces

C.) additional physical interfaces

D.) secondary addresses

Ans B D

Cisco routers do not allow multiple encapsulation types on a single interface. Therefore, it is necessary to create either a Secondary Network, or a Subinterface and assign a new encapsulation type.

365 Which 3 statements describe default encapsulation and LMI type configuration?

A.) There are only four encapsulations and 3 LMI type options

B.) The LMI type config term options

C.) In release 11.3 the LMI type is autosensed

D.) The default LMI is Cisco

E.) IETF encap must be configured unless the connecting routers are both cisco

Ans C D E

The above 3 statements best describe default encapsulation and LMI type configuration for Cisco routers.

366 Which can be true regarding VLANs?

A.) They are created by location

B.) They are created by function

C.) They are created by department

D.) They are created by group

Ans A B C D

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a switched network that is logically segmented by communities of interest without regard to the physical location of the users. Each port on the switch can belong to a VLAN. Ports in a VLAN share broadcasts. A VLAN looks like, and is treated like, it's own subnet. The benefits of VLANs are as follows: Simplify moves, adds, and changes Reduce administrative costs Have better control of broadcasts Tighten network security Microsegment with scalability Distribute traffic load Relocate server into secured locations

367 What is true when using DDR?

A.) HDLC is the preferred encapsulation

B.) You must use static routing

C.) You should use dynamic routing

D.) You should use ISDN

Ans B

When using Dial Demand Routing (DDR), static routes must be specified in order to route packets.

368 If you are running Token Ring with Novell IPX routing, which encapsulation should
you use?

A.) SAP

B.) SNAP

C.) 802.5

D.) 802.2

Ans B

Token Ring with Novell IPX routing uses the SNAP protocol, not 802.5.

369 What are the 3 ways routers learn paths to destination networks?

A.) Dynamic

B.) Static

C.) Routing tables

D.) Default

Ans A B D

There are three methods in which routers can learn paths to destination networks, they are: 1) Static - The administrator manually enters the routes. 2) Dynamic - A routing protocol is used. 3) Default - A gateway of last resort is set.

370 Bridges work at what layer of the OSI model?

A.) Data Link

B.) Network

C.) Physical

D.) Application

Ans A

Bridges work at Layer 2 (Data Link) because they examine the MAC address of the packet which they base decisions upon.

371 What is the default switching method for the Cisco 5000 series?

A.) Cut-through

B.) Store-and-splice

C.) Latency

D.) Store-and-forward

Ans D

Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.

372 The benefits to segmenting with Bridges are which of the following?

A.) Scalability

B.) Datagram filtering

C.) Manageability

D.) Reliability

Ans A C D

Manageability, reliability and scalability are all benefits to segmenting with bridges.

373 What is the administrative distance for IGRP?

A.) 90

B.) 120

C.) 110

D.) 100

Ans D

IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a composite metric. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.

374 On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this channel?

A.) 64 Kbps

B.) 1.544 Mbps

C.) 128 Kbps

D.) 2.048 Mbps

E.) 16 Kbps

Ans E

16K for the D channel (control) 64K for the two B channels (data)

375 MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model?

A.) Session

B.) Network

C.) Datalink

D.) Transport

E.) Application

F.) Presentation

Ans F

The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption can also occur at this layer.

part - 54 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

376 Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology?

A.) World Series

B.) I- Series

C.) Q-Series

D.) 911-Series

E.) J-Series

F.) F-Series

Ans B

The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts and terminology.

377 Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?

A.) SQL

B.) IP

C.) LLC

D.) DDP

E.) Ethernet

Ans E

FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.

378 In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control?

A.) B

B.) D

C.) E

D.) I

E.) Q

Ans B

B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb).

379 Which protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address?

A.) DHCP

B.) RARP

C.) ARP

D.) NBP

E.) DNS

Ans C

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) sends out a broadcast to determine the MAC address from the IP address.

380 Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?

A.) TCP

B.) IP

C.) SQL

D.) Token Ring

E.) LLC

Ans B

Most protocol suites have different OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4. DDP is for Appletalk

381 The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?

A.) Physical

B.) Transport

C.) Session

D.) Datalink

E.) Presentation

F.) Network

Ans F

ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and traceroute are examples of ICMP.

382 Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?

A.) IP

B.) Netbios Names

C.) NFS

D.) Token Ring

E.) SQL

F.) TCP

Ans B C E

Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.

383 What is the regional telco office called, where the customers local loop terminates?

A.) Demarc

B.) DTE

C.) DCE

D.) CO

E.) CPE

Ans D

The Central Office (CO) is the Telephone Company (Telco) location nearest you.

384 What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay?

A.) Gandalf5

B.) Q933A

C.) Cisco

D.) IETF

E.) ARPA

F.) SAP

Ans C

Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A.

385 Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of which routing technology?

A.) Split Horizon

B.) LMI

C.) Triggered Updates

D.) Poison Reverse

E.) SYN, ACK F.) DLCI

Ans A

The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out the same interface that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a more aggressive routing loop solution is required.

386 Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information between 2 different OS's? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC.

A.) Transport

B.) Application

C.) Physical

D.) Session

E.) Presentation

F.) Network

Ans E

The OSI Presentation layer formats the data, which includes encryption services.

387 Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it?

A.) Tabling

B.) Store-and-Forward

C.) Inverse ARP

D.) Fast Forward

E.) Cut-Through

F.) Routing

Ans B

Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines.

388 Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination?

A.) Datalink

B.) Physical

C.) Network

D.) Transport

E.) Session

Ans C

The Network layer is where routing occurs.

389 Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer?

A.) LLC

B.) SQL

C.) TCP

D.) Token Ring

E.) IP

Ans A

MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer.


390 What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone?

A.) TE1

B.) TA

C.) LE

D.) TE2

E.) ET

Ans D

Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The analog device will require an external analog to digital converter.

391 Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence?

A.) Triggered Updates.

B.) Split Horizon.

C.) Poison Reverse.

D.) Hold Down timers.

E.) Inverse ARP.

Ans A

Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops.

392 Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?'

A.) Cut-Through

B.) Multiplexed

C.) Inverted

D.) Layer 4

E.) Store and Forward

F.) Layer 3

Ans A

Cut-Through is the fastest mode of switching. Store and Forward reads in the entire frame, confirms the frame is valid, and then forwards the frame onto the wire. Cut-Through only checks the destination header in the frame and immediately forwards the frame onto the wire, without checking the frame to be valid. Layer-3 switching is actually routing.

393 The Datalink layer works with which of the following:

A.) Packets

B.) Bits

C.) Globules

D.) Frames

E.) Segments

Ans D

Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packets

394 What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?

A.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.

B.) They work at wire speed.

C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching.

D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding.

E.) They decrease latency.

Ans D

Store and Forward switch will not forward fragments. The longer the frame, the longer the delay (latency) before the switch can forward.

395 Station A is transmitting data to station B, and expects an acknowledgment after every 400 bytes. After transmitting data for a while, the two stations determine the line is reliable and change to expecting and acknowledgement every 600 bytes. This is an example of (pick the best answer only):

A.) BECN

B.) Sliding Windows

C.) Poison Reverse

D.) Countdown timers

E.) Split Horizon

F.) Count to infinity

Ans B

A TCP/IP 'window' is the amount of data (number of bytes) that the sending station will transmit before expecting an acknowledgement back. If the stations can change that window size on the fly, that is called a sliding window. This is done to optimize performance.

396 Which device listed below provides clocking for the line?

A.) DCE

B.) CPE

C.) CO

D.) DTE

E.) Demarc

Ans A

The Data Circuit-terminating Equipment (DCE) is responsible for providing the clocking on the wire. HINT: When You see the 'C' in 'DCE', think 'Clocking' t.

397 Which OSI Reference Layer controls application to application communication?

A.) Datalink

B.) Network

C.) Transport

D.) Session

E.) Physical

Ans D

The Session layer controls a conversation between applications. The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.

398 The Datalink Layer is broken down into 2 layers, LLC and MAC. The LLC establishes media independence and what else?

A.) Provides Windowing.

B.) Provides flow control.

C.) Provides SAP's (Service Access Points).

D.) The Datalink layer does not have sublayers.

E.) Provides SAP's (Service Advertising Protocol).

F.) RIP Updates.

Ans B C

OSI layer-2 SAP allows the upper layers to encapsulate multiple layer 3 protocols. IPX SAP is a protocol used to advertise NetWare services every 60 seconds.

399 When a Distance Vector routing protocol detects that a connected network has gone down, it sends out a special routing update packet, telling all directly connected routers that the distance to the dead network is infinity. This is an example of which routing technology?

A.) ICMP.

B.) Only Link State routing protocols have this intelligence.

C.) Triggered updates.

D.) Garrison-4.

E.) Split Horizon.

F.) Poison Reverse.

Ans F

Instead of just removing the route from the routing update, Poison Reverse sets the distance to 'infinity' (for IP RIP this is a hop count of 16). This immediately makes the route invalid for all neighboring routers.

400 Which of the following would be displayed by the command 'SHOW CDP NEIGHBOR DETAIL'?

A.) The incoming/outgoing port.

B.) The hardware platform.

C.) One address per protocol.

D.) Amount of Flash Memory Available

E.) The routers hostname.

F.) The subnet mask, if IP is configured.

Ans A B C E

CDP shows a lot of the same info that 'show version' does locally, but FLASH memory is not part of it. The 'detail' keyword is optional, but even when used, IP subnet mask information is not displayed by CDP for IP interfaces.

Part - 55 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

401 Which of the following are characteristics of UDP?

A.) UDP is connection oriented.

B.) UDP is used with TFTP.

C.) UDP is unreliable.

D.) UDP is connectionless.

E.) UDP is at the transport layer.

F.) UDP uses no acknowledgements.

Ans B C D E F

UDP sends packets 'blind' down the network, and relies on upper-layer protocols to form connections and detect errors. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that can provide reliable transport.

402 What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?

A.) They work at wire speed.

B.) They are the same as Cut-Through switching in 'prune' mode.

C.) They forward based on transport layer info.

D.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.

E.) They increase latency.

Ans E

Store and froward will not forward fragments. The longer the packet, the longer the delay (latency) in the switch. There is no such thing as 'prune' mode.

403 The Internet Protocol (IP) occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?

A.) Physical

B.) Presentation

C.) Network

D.) Datalink

E.) Session

F.) Transport

Ans C

IP is a routed protocol that occurs at layer 3. Other layer 3 protocols include IPX, APPLETALK, and DECNET.

404 In regards to TCP/IP, which class of address allows for the fewest valid Internet hosts?

A.) D

B.) E

C.) Classes are not used in TCP/IP. D.) B E.) C F.) A

Ans E

Class A = 16.7 million hosts Class B = 65,534 hosts Class C = 254 hosts

405 For IPX, what is the DEFAULT Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface?

A.) novell-ether

B.) gns

C.) snap

D.) arpa

E.) sap

F.) dix
Ans A

At the time when Cisco first supported IPX, Novell-Ether (Novell proprietary 802.3 'raw') was the default frame type for NetWare 2.x and 3.x file servers. Now, Novell has changed their default frame type to 802.2 (which is really IEEE 802.3 Ethernet, with LLC 802.2 headers).

406 Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_II. What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?

A.) dix

B.) sap

C.) arpa

D.) gns

E.) snap

F.) novell-ether

Ans C

Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')

407 There are 2 types of PPP authentication supported by the Cisco IOS. What are they?

A.) PAP

B.) PREDICTOR

C.) MD5

D.) CHAP

E.) STACKER

F.) MSCHAP

Ans A D

Router(config-if)#ppp authentication ? chap Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) pap Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

408 Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?

A.) Token Ring

B.) UDP

C.) TCP

D.) IP

E.) SQL

F.) LLC

Ans B C

TCP is connection oriented. UDP is connectionless.

409 Which of the following describe SMTP?

A.) Used for downloading files to the router.

B.) Used for sending e-mail.

C.) Uses TCP.

D.) Uses UDP.

E.) Uses port 25.

F.) Used for managing IP devices.

Ans B C E

Send / Simple (depending on literature) Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) is used for delivering mail to other mail servers. It uses port 25, and relies on TCP. POP 3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used for retrieving mail from mail servers to clients.

410 What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN modem?

A.) ET

B.) LE

C.) TE2

D.) TE3

E.) TA

Ans E

The marketing term 'ISDN modem' was created to help sell the ISDN idea to America. There is no such thing as an analog modulator demodulator for digital ISDN. The Terminal Adapter (TA) allows you to connect a PC to a digital ISDN line directly. In the real world, ISDN is digital, modems are analog.

411Which of the following are Transport layer protocols?

A.) UDP

B.) TCP

C.) NBP

D.) IP

E.) SPX

Ans A B C E

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP are used by TCP/IP. SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is used with IPX. NBP (Name Binding Protocol) is used with Appletalk.

412 When determining whether or not to route a LAN segment, which rule of thumb do you use?

A.) 60/40

B.) 50/50

C.) 80/20

D.) 90/10

E.) 70/30

Ans E

The industry standard rule is 80/20, which means 80% local, 20% over the router. However, according to Cisco's online documentation, the answer is 70/30. This makes sense, considering more and more traffic is starting to go from the desktop to an ultimate destination outside the local are network, such as the Internet.

413 Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?

A.) TCP

B.) LLC

C.) SQL

D.) NFS

E.) Token Ring

Ans C D

Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.

414 Which layer of the 7 layer model provides services to the Application layer over the Session layer connection?

A.) Transport

B.) Application

C.) Session

D.) Network

E.) Datalink

F.) Presentation

Ans F

The OSI Presentation layer is sandwiched between the Application and Session layers.

415 What type of switching creates variable latency through the switch?

A.) Cut-Through

B.) Inverted

C.) Layer 4

D.) Multiplexed

E.) Store and Forward Ans E DEFINITION: Latency = Delay. Because a store and forward switch reads the whole frame before forwarding,a larger frame takes longer than a shorter frame.

416 The network portion of an address typically represents a:

A.) Router

B.) Ethernet MAC address.

C.) Computer

D.) Host

E.) Segment

Ans E

Every network segment is represented by a network or subnetwork address.

417 The Physical layer works with which of the following:

A.) Segments

B.) Datagrams

C.) Packets

D.) Bits

E.) Frames

Ans

D Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packets

418 Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?

A.) LLC

B.) SQL

C.) Token Ring

D.) IPX E.) SPX

Ans D

Most protocol suites have different OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4. DDP is for Appletalk

419 When setting up a frame-relay network between a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router, what encapsulation type should you use?

A.) SAP

B.) CISCO

C.) IANA

D.) Apollo

E.) IETF

F.) Q933A

Ans E

The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) encapsulation method is the standard encapsulation type for Frame Relay. Cisco routers default to the CISCO encapsulation method, because it was created before there was a standard.

420 A user device that connects to a DCE must be which of the following?

A.) DTE

B.) CPE

C.) Demarc

D.) DCE

E.) CO

Ans A

DTE's are the router side, and receive clocking. DCE's are the DSU/CSU side, and provide clocking. It may or may not be Customer Premises equipment.

421 What does the parameter -- LOG -- do on an IPX access list?

A.) The log keyword is not a valid option.

B.) Read the LOG to figure out what traffic to deny.

C.) Logs the creation of the access list.

D.) Logs IPX access control list violations whenever a packet matches a particular access list entry.

E.) Ensures the IPX protocol places a log in the fireplace.

Ans D

Router(config)#access-list 900 deny any ? log Log matches against this entry

422 Given the global configuration commands: 'banner motd #' 'Hello #' When would the message be displayed?

A.) The message of the day banner shows up before login.

B.) The message of the day banner shows up during logoff.

C.) These commands are not the right syntax for MOTD. D.) Message of the day banners are displayed upon entering global config mode.

E.) Message of the day banners are not possible.

F.) The message of the day would be, 'Hello #'

Ans A

Message of the day banners are displayed when a user logs on to the router. In the example above, the '#' is the unique delimiting (terminating) character. In this way, banners can have multiple lines, terminated not by hitting , but rather by the chosen (unique) delimiting character.

423 Which ISDN specification deals with call Setup and Teardown?

A.) Q-Series

B.) J-Series

C.) I- Series

D.) C- Series

E.) F-Series

Ans A

The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q = Call setup and teardown. I = Concepts and terminology.

424 All equipment located at the customers site is called:

A.) CPE

B.) CO

C.) DCE

D.) Demarc

E.) DTE

Ans A

CPE - Customer Premise Equipment

425 Which layer allows multiple Ethernet devices to uniquely identify one another on the Datalink layer?

A.) Transport

B.) Session

C.) Network

D.) Datalink - MAC Sublayer

E.) Datalink - LLC Sublayer

Ans D

Ethernet MAC addresses are 48 bits long, and provide a unique hardware identifier.

part - 56 CCNA Interview Questions and Answers

426 Which of the following are examples of ICMP?

A.) Traceroute

B.) Web Browsing

C.) Ping

D.) Telnet

E.) Destination Unreachable message from a router

F.) Inverse Tunnels

Ans A C E

Ping and Traceroute are used by ICMP for Testing. Destination Unreachable messages are generated by a router when it does not have a route to the network.

427 Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_SNAP. What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?

A.) arpa

B.) sap

C.) snap

D.) gns

E.) dix

F.) novell-ether

Ans C

Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')

428 Given the Novell IPX address 1aceb0b.0000.0c12.3456 which part is the network portion of the address?

A.) 0000

B.) 1

C.) 3456

D.) 1ace

E.) 0000.0c12.3456

F.) 1aceb0b

Ans F

IPX addresses are 80 bits total: The first section of the address is the network portion, the last 3 groups of numbers are the host.

429 In version 11.2 of the IOS, a Cisco router configured for frame-relay can automatically detect the LMI type. What is this known as?

A.) Psychic

B.) ESP

C.) Inverse ARP

D.) Hello

E.) Reverse ARP

F.) Autosense

Ans F

Autosense allows the router to determine which LMI type the frame relay switch is using. Options include CISCO, ANSI, and Q933A.

430 What type of Ethernet operation allows only one entity to transmit at a time? For example, if someone else is transmitting, they must wait.

A.) Full-Duplex

B.) Dual-Duplex

C.) Half-Duplex

D.) Latex

E.) Quarter-Duplex

F.) Suplex

Ans C

Half-Duplex is like a one-lane bridge. If one car is going over the bridge, all other cars must wait on the other side before crossing

431 Which of the following are examples of the Application Layer?

A.) LLC

B.) Token Ring

C.) Spreadsheet

D.) TCP

E.) IP

F.) Word Processor

Ans C F

Pretty much any end-user program is an example of the Application Layer.

432 Which technologies listed below help prevent network loops in a switched (bridged) environment?

A.) Store-and-Forward

B.) IEEE 802.1d

C.) Diikjstra Algorithm

D.) Cut-Through

E.) Spanning Tree Protocol

F.) Routing

Ans B E

The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) eliminates loops by disabling the port(s) that are causing the bridging loop. This is also called putting a port into 'blocking' mode. The industry standard for STP is IEEE 802.1d

433 Which OSI Reference Layer controls end-to-end (host to host) communication?

A.) Transport

B.) Physical

C.) Datalink

D.) Network

E.) Session

Ans A

The Session layer controls a conversation between applications. The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.

434 What is the first step in data encapsulation?

A.) User information is converted into data.

B.) Frames are put into bits.

C.) Data is converted into segments.

D.) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.

E.) Packets are put into logical frame.

Ans A

The Five steps to data encapsulation (IN ORDER): 1) User information is converted into data. 2) Data is converted into segments. 3) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets. 4) Packets are put into logical frame. 5) Frames are put into bits.

435 We know that TCP provides connection oriented services, what else does it provide?

A.) FECN & BECN

B.) Path discovery.

C.) Flow control and error checking.

D.) Name resolution.

E.) File manipulation.

Ans C

The transmission control protocol uses acknowledgements and windowing to handle flow control and error checking.

436 With distance vector routing protocols, it is never useful to send the same routing update packet back out the same interface that it was learned. This concept is called what?

A.) Holddown timers

B.) Poison Reverse

C.) Count to infinity

D.) Split Horizon

E.) Link State

Ans D

Split horizon is the concept of: 'Don't tell me what I just told you.'

437 Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router?

A.) HTTP

B.) Console

C.) Telnet

D.) Aux Port

E.) SNMP

F.) LLC

Ans A B C D

You can connect via Aux, Console, Telnet, or HTTP to a Cisco router. SNMP can support Community (password protected) SET and PUT commands, but you can not issue a command line interface command with it.

438 What two types of PPP data compression are available using Cisco IOS?

A.) Predictor

B.) DoubleSpace

C.) Stacker

D.) PAP

E.) ZIP

F.) CHAP

Ans A C

Stacker and predictor have similar compression rates. Stacker uses more CPU, while predictor uses more RAM.

439 In regards to the OSI seven-layer model, at which layer is EBCDIC and ASCII?

A.) Presentation

B.) Application

C.) Transport

D.) Session

E.) Datalink

F.) Network

Ans A

The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption can also occur at this layer.

440 Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?

A.) SQL

B.) UDP

C.) IP

D.) LLC

E.) ARP

Ans B

TCP is connection oriented. UDP is connectionless.

441 Given the global configuration command 'banner motd #7 Hello #', what do the '#' symbols represent?

A.) Escape sequence to exit the menu.

B.) Nothing, just part of the banner.

C.) Tic Tac Toe Macro.

D.) Delimiting Character

E.) Message border character.

F.) Number of times message to be displayed.

Ans D

Delimiting characters allow you to have a message the is more than one line. You simply type as many lines as you want, ending with the delimiting (terminating) character.

442 There is a process in Frame-Relay where LMI resolves an IP address from a DLCI number. What is this called?

A.) arp

B.) inverse arp

C.) rarp

D.) automap

E.) reverse arp

F.) arp

Ans B

Inverse Arp maps the Local DLCI number to the remote IP address. Inverse Arp is a function of LMI.

443 When setting up a WAN network, everything outside of the Demarc is not owned by the customer. Which of the following are not owned by the customer?

A.) The T1 line.

B.) LAN

C.) The Router

D.) DTE

E.) PC's

F.) CO

Ans A F

The Central Office is the where phone people work. The Telco maintains ownership of its physical wiring, and leases their use to their customers.

444 You want to segment a network. The network is running SNA and Netbios. Which device should NOT be used to segment the network?

A.) A store and forward switch.

B.) A router.

C.) A Catalyst 5000.

D.) A cut-through switch.

E.) A bridge.

Ans B

SNA and Netbios are non-routable, you should bridge them. The most correct answer for this question is 'A Router.' The purpose here is to recognize that Layer 2 protocols can not be routed. However, there are ways to turn a non-routable protocol into a routable protocol via a protocol gateway, DLSW+, RSRB and other technologies.

445 Name a major component of the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to negotiate and set up control options on the WAN data link.

A.) RFC 1661

B.) High Level Datalink Protocol (HDLC)

C.) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D.) SS7

E.) Link Control Protocol (LCP) Ans E LCP negotiates many of the PPP settings during call setup.

446 Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?

A.) SQL

B.) IP

C.) LLC

D.) Token Ring

E.) FDDI

F.) TCP

Ans D E

FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.

447 Cisco's implementation of ISDN BRI has multi protocol support, SNMP MIB support, and what other features?

A.) Call waiting

B.) Compression

C.) ADSL

D.) 1.544 Mbps

E.) Call screening

F.) Negative 'G' support

Ans B E

Caller ID is part of ISDN and you can screen calls based on it. Cisco can compress with Stacker or Predictor.

448 The Network layer works with which of the following:

A.) Globules

B.) Bits

C.) Packets

D.) Segments

E.) Frames

Ans C

Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packets

449 An optional parameter on an IPX access is the 'LOG' parameter. This records access-list violations when a packet matches. What else does the 'LOG' option do?

A.) Records the number of times that a packet matches the list.

B.) Return a message to user who is denied access the by list.

C.) Notifies an SNMP Agent.

D.) Saves the log to NVRAM.

E.) Send an SNMP Trap.

Ans A

It will record to the log. By default a Cisco router logs to RAM and can display the offense to the console, which is not recommended. It is suggested that you log to a syslog server, for less router
CPU impact.

450 Which is not a common problem with Distance-Vector routing?

A.) Slow convergence.

B.) Complex configuration.

C.) Routing loops.

D.) Periodic updates can slow convergence.

E.) Counting to infinity.

Ans B

Easy Config: Router(config)#router rip Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 Router(config-router)# That’s it! (Remember that the network is followed by the CLASSFUL address.)